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Examination card 1
Part1
Section 1
Read the text below about tigers and decide if the statements are true or false.
On your answer sheet, mark:
A if it is true
B if it is false
Save the tigers!
People want to use the place where the wild animals live for farming or to build bigger cities and factories, so they sometimes kill the animals. When one kind of animal cannot be found anywhere any more, we say that it has become extinct, which means that all animals of that kind have died. Other animals are called “endangered” because they are in danger of becoming extinct. One of these animals is the tiger.
About 100 years ago, over 100,000 tigers could be found in different areas of Asia, from Caspian Sea to Indonesia. Today there are fewer than 3,000 tigers left in India, and most of them live in tiger reserves – special parks where the animals are looked after. Only 500 Siberian tigers live in the wild, while the Caspian and Bali tigers have already become extinct.
Most people think they are not safe from tigers, but the truth is that tigers are not sage from humans, because they take away the tiger’s home and kill the small animals that tigers eat. Farmers in Asia kill tigers in order to keep their farm animals safe or to use the beautiful hair that covers their body.
The good news is that now many people are members of organizations, like the WWW(World Wild Fund), which try to stop the tiger and other endangered animals from becoming extinct. In some areas, the number of tigers has actually grown because of the work which is done by these organizations and special tiger reserves. However, it is difficult to stop people from killing tigers, as they can get more than $50,000 just for one tiger. It is very important that we all work together to keep animals safe, because the world needs all kinds of animals.

1.     If an animal is endangered, it cannot be found anywhere in the world.
2.     All the tigers in India have died.
3.     The Siberian tiger is in danger of becoming extinct.
4.     Some tigers are killed for their hair.
5.     There are now more tigers than ever before.
6.     Some people pay over $50,000 to buy a pet tiger.






Section 2
Read the sentences and choose the correct letter a, b, c, or d for each space.
Mark your answers on your answer sheet.

1.     ____ is your favourite music?
a. Who           b. How                c. What              d. These
2. How old ____ your brother?
a. does              b. is               c. do                       d. are
3. There are ____ pictures in that gallery.
a. any            b. many                    c. much              d. a
4. We went to the theatre ____ last Saturday.
a. ×              b. in              c. on                      d. at
5. Is Paris ____ than London?
a. big                 b. the biggest              c. bigger              d. biggest
6. We ____ Manchester next week.
a. going to             b. are going to         c. going in          d. are going in
7. I saw an accident when I ____ down the street.
a. walking         b. have been walking         c. was walking       d. was walked
8. We’ve celebrated Independence Day ____ 15 years.
a. from            b. since             c. science            d. for
9. Liz is ____ in photography.
a. interesting          b. interested               c. interest            d. interestingly
10. Some people go to shops ____ the prices are really high.
a. which         b. what           c. where            d. that
11. Before I went to school, I ____ paint very well.
a. can’t            b. can’t have          c. couldn’t             d. couldn’t have
12. I saw Jane ____ the supermarket.
a. enter          b. entered               c. being entered               d. be entering

Part 2 – Writing
It’s the first day back at school.
Write a message of 35-50 words to your friend, Emma and tell her:
·        How it feels to be back at school;
·        About your friends;
·        About the teachers.
Write your message on your answer sheet.









Examination card 2
Part1
Section 1
Read the text below and decide if the statements are true or false.
On your answer sheet, mark:
A if it is true
B if it is false
That’s Magic!
Think about a film you really liked. What did you like most about it? Was it the story or the actors? Perhaps it was the strange views, the chatting animals or the flying people. Of course, all these exciting things are not real. They are called “special effects”, and they are part of the magic of cinema.
The first special effect was made at the end of the 19th century. A French filmmaker was filming a man walking in the street, when suddenly the camera stopped working for a few seconds. When it started working again, a woman was walking past. Later, when the filmmaker watched a film, it looked as if the man had become a woman!
Today, special effects are used in almost every film. They are made using computer programs and software, but sometimes they can be quite difficult to notice. For example, the biggest dinosaurs that were shown in Jurassic Park were actually smaller than a dog and moved with the help of a computer.
It would not be possible to have special effects in a film without computers. For example, in Forrest Gump, a film made in 1994, Forrest meets President Kennedy, who has been dead since 1963. Tom Hanks, who played the part of Forrest, first acted out his part in front of a blue screen, and then a computer was used to put a part of an old film with the president together with Tom’s part.
Special effects are certainly more amazing now than they were in the past. People who work with computers in cinema say that even the main parts in a film will be played by computers in the future, so actors will no longer be needed. But do you think it is possible to live in a world without film stars?

1.     Some films show animals who are talking.
2.     A woman changed into a man while walking down the street.
3.     There are dogs that are bigger than the dinosaurs in Jurassic Park.
4.     Tom Hanks met President Kennedy in 1994.
5.     Parts of two films were joined to make one in Forrest Gump.
6.     Everyone believes that actors will always be needed to play the main parts in films.





Section 2
Read the sentences and choose the correct letter a, b, c, or d for each space.
Mark your answers on your answer sheet.

1.     ______Susan like spaghetti?
a. Is        b. What         c. Does          d. Do
2. Lucy doesn’t like ____.
a. swim          b. swimming         c. swims          d. to swimming
3. Sarah ____ two children.
a. have      b. have got          c. is          d. has
4. The film starts ____ six.
a. about             b. at               c. in            d. on
5. I ____ wash the dishes every day.
a. have          b. have to              c. need                d. have got
6. What food ____ on Christmas Day in England?
a. eats             b. is eating              c. ate                   d. is eaten
7. What would you do if you ____ one million dollars?
a. win       b. won        c. have won           d. have been winning
8. The cinema is ____ the restaurant and the newsagent’s.
a. opposing      b. nearly      c. between         d. close
9. You didn’t learn Russian at school, ____?
a. didn’t you          b. no         c. don’t you           d. did you
10. Doing regular exercises will ____ you fit.
a. keep      b. become        c. get         d. stay
11. Before we start, we should introduce ____ to the audience.
a. us        b. ourselves         c. myself            d. yourselves
12. What’s ____ the cinema?
a. on         b. at            c. on at             d. in

Part 2 – Writing
Your English friend, Jill is planning to visit you in the summer.
Write a message of 35-50 words to Jill and:
·        Ask her exactly when she’s coming;
·        Tell her you will meet her at the airport;
·        Tell her what clothes to bring.
Write your message on your answer sheet.





Державна підсумкова атестація
з англійської мови
для загальноосвітніх навчальних закладів 
Бланк відповідей


Прізвище та ім’я ________________________           Дата____________
Навчальний заклад______________________           Клас____________
Part 1 Reading and English in use
Section 1
1
   A

     B


2
   A

     B


3
   A

     B


4
   A

     B


5
   A

     B


6
   A

     B



Section 2
1
a

b

c


2
a

b

c


3
a

b

c


4
a

b

c


5
a

b

c


6
a

b

c


7
a

b

c


8
a

b

c


9
a

b

c


10
a

b

c


11
a

b

c


12
a

b

c



Поле екзаменаторів                                  Увага, писати в полі екзаменаторів заборонено!
Section 1

Section 2

Total

 Part 2 Writing
Write your answer below

































Поле екзаменаторів                                  Увага, писати в полі екзаменаторів заборонено!
Content and communicative message

Language range

Text organisation

TOTAL



Examination card № 1
I.                  Reading
Read an article and do the tasks.
Time for coffee
The story of coffee drinking is one of the greatest and most fascinating in history. Millions of coffee drinkers worldwide cannot imagine their life without a cup of  aromatic coffee in the morning. Coffee is a natural stimulant which makes us feel more awake, alert and ready to concentrate.
The qualities of mocha, as a coffee was once known, were first discovered in Ethiopia more than one thousand years ago.
However, it was not Africans but Turks and Arabs who actively encouraged coffee drinking. The habit of coffee drinking quickly spread throughout the Arab world, where coffee won a reputation as the wine of Islam.
Coffee was first grown in Yemen. It was popular with Turks who served the drink to visiting Italian merchants. In 1615 trades from Venice brought coffee to Europe., where it was originally sold as medicine. By the end of the sixteenth century coffee was drunk in major European cities from Paris to London. Now, around the world there are different methods of preparing coffee, for example, in  Turkey coffee is traditionally boiled three times while Italians are the inventors of espresso and cappuccino.
We drink coffee because of its aroma, taste and stimulating effect. However, extensive consumption of coffee may be harmful to our health, for instance, it may increase one’s blood or make one’s heart beat irregularly. Fortunately, new brands of coffee have been appearing on the market recently. As they do not contain substances harmful to health, many people will not have to give up their coffee-drinking habits.

a)      choose the best answer (A-C) to complete the sentences
  1. Coffee was discovered ______.
  1. in Europe
  2. in Africa
  3. in Asia
  1. Coffee drinking was popularised by _____.
  1. the Ethiopians
  2. the Italians
  3. the Turks
  1. Coffee was first grown ______.
  1. in Italy
  2. in Turkey
  3. in Yemen
  1. In Europe, coffee was popular as _____.
  1. a medicine
  2. the wine of Islam
  3. a natural stimulant
  1. By the end of the sixteenth century people drank coffee ____.
  1. in northern Europe
  2. in the most important European cities
  3. in Paris and London only.
  1. New brands of coffee ______.
  1. are as harmful as the original mocha
  2. are less harmful than regular coffee
  3. may influence our concentration ability

b)      decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F)
  1. Millions of people all over the world cannot imagine their life without a cup of coffee in the morning.
  2. Coffee was discovered in Ethiopia more than two thousand years ago.
  3. Coffee was popular with Turks who served the drink visiting Turks merchants.
  4. All over the world there are a lot of methods of preparing coffee.
  5. Extensive consumption may increase people’s blood pressure or make heart beat irregularly.
  6. New brands of coffee contain substances harmful to health.


II.                Writing
Choose the best variant
  1. At the moment she … lunch with her sister.
a) have      b) is having      c) has         d) had
2. Last month my family and me … to London for two weeks.
a) was flying       b) fly         c) flown           d) flew
3. If I were you, I …. To Paris.
a) would go        b) gone               c) go         d) will go
4. He isn’t from London, ….?
a) isn’t he?       b) is he?             c) he is           d) he isn’t
5. the capital of Estonia is …. Tallin.
a) -      b) an          c) the            d) a
6. The car … by my father yesterday morning.
a) is repaired        b) repaired             c) was repaired              d) repairs
 7. Tomorrow morning I … my dentist for my yearly checkup.
a) am going to see        b)  will see       c) see        d) to see
8. She … her shoes to the shop yet.
a) hasn’t taken        b) hasn’t been taken        c) took       d) taken
9. School … at 8.30 every morning.
a) will start       b) starts       c) is starting        d) start
10. If I wanted to lose weight, I … more exercise.
a) would take        b) will take      c) would have taken       d) took
11. In summer some people … earlier to go for a walk.
a) gets up       b) got up        c) will get up       d) get up
12. What … you … at the moment? Oh, nothing.
a) is … doing      b) are done        c) are doing       d) will do

Write about an environmental problem in your country or in the world. Include this information:
  • Why you care about the problem;
  • What will happen if we don’t take action
  • What individuals can do to help.
Write 70-80 words on your answer sheet.

Examination card № 2
I.                  Reading
Read an article and do the tasks.
Hi, Maurice!
I can’t thank you enough for the white-water rafting trip voucher that you sent me!
I’ve just got back and can’t help writing and telling you about it! It was so exciting and thrilling. It is something that I will never forget and can’t wait to try again.
When I got on the bus, I thought that everyone looked very experienced. However, I soon realized that it was their first time too. We arrived at the river, put on our gear and listened while the instructor gave us a safety briefing. He explained what we should do in an emergency but reassured us that there would be an expert in every raft.
We soon set off. At the beginning, the water was calm and slow-moving, but as we floated further downstream, there were more and more rapids.  The raft started moving from side to side and I felt a little bit nervous. It was fantastic fun, though. By the time we reached the mouth of the river, we were soaked through, but the adrenalin rush was amazing.
Let’s go together next time. You would get such a kick out of it. Once again, thanks a million for the voucher.
Let’s talk soon.
Phil

Decide if the statements are true or false
1.      Maurice wrote a letter to Phil
2.      Phil wants to go rafting again.
3.      The other people on the bus had done rafting before.
4.      Phil did not have to wear  special clothes.
5.      There was one expert per raft.
6.      The water flowed faster upstream.
7.       Phil felt a bit afraid at the beginning.
8.      Phil didn’t enjoy rafting.
9.      Phil got wet.
10.  Next time, Phil wants to go with the other people he met.
11.  Phil is not sure that Maurice will enjoy rafting.
12.   The white-water rafting trip was exciting and thrilling.


II.Writing
Choose the best variant
  1. I don’t want … to you any more.
a) to listen       b) listen       c) listening          d) listened
2. If Chris passes his exams, his parents … him some money.
a) give      b) gives       c) will give      d) gave
3.  I … supper now.
a) is having       b) am having       c) have        d) has
4. John … already … his car.
a) have cleaned                b) cleaned              c) has cleaned        d) is cleaned
5. look


Examination card № 3
II.               Reading
Read an article and do the tasks.
Healthy lifestyle
Like many kids, Katie Bolger, 8, preferred sweet things, such as candy and cookies, to healthy vegetables and fruit. Her mum , Deb Bolger, saw a pattern of poor eating habits forming that she knew she had to stop, but how? “I was beside myself because Katie started having digestive problems, yet she didn’t want to eat anything healthy,” said the Fairview’s resident. ”Katie was at the top of her percentile in height and weight. I wanted to nip this in the bud.”
The Bolgers found help from kid Shape, a programme at Pinnacle Health System in Harrisburg aimed at promoting healthy food choices and active lifestyles for children and their families.
Kid Shape uses interactive games, physical activities, cooking demonstrations and discussions about food choices and behavior to help families uncover unhealthy food habits and adopt a healthy lifestyle.
During the sessions, both children and parents exercise with a trainer. Separately, parents hear information from nutritionists and other health professionals while children learn about self-esteem and healthy living.
“They discourage being obsessed with the scale,” Deb Bolger said. “they want the kids to adopt a healthy lifestyle, not just lose weight, and that’s what we wanted to do as a family, too.”
The strategy worked with Katie. She lost five pounds, and she began realizing the importance of exercise, She’s even reading nutrition labels.
“I think Kid Shape is awesome,” said Fairview Elementary School third-grade student. “You get to play games and meet new people. Kid Shape helped me a lot because you do a lot of exercises and eat healthy snacks.”
“Programmes are provided to families at no cost, especially in areas where there is great need and access to programming is limited. Pinnacle Health got involved to encourage youth to take responsibility for their health now in order to impact their future,” Barbara Terry the vice president for mission effectiveness at Pinnacle Health, said. “it is well-documented that physical activity and good nutrition not only improves heart health, but serves to prevent chronic illnesses in the future,” she said.
Pinnacle Health has already seen the results from its first Kid shape programme in September, when more than 60 per cent of children participating lost between one and five pounds.
Nationally, 87 percent of more than 12,000 Kid Shape participants have lost weight.

Decide if the statements are true or false
1.      Katie Bolger is 8 years old.
2.      She likes healthy vegetables and fruit.
3.      The family decided to help Katie to lead healthy lifestyle.
4.      Pinnacle Health programme aimed at promoting healthy food choices and active lifestyles for children.
5.      With the help of games, cooking demonstrations and other thing Kid Shape helps families adopt a healthier lifestyle.
6.      Only children exercise with a trainer.
7.      This programme helped Katie to lose five pounds.
8.      Another student from Fairview Elementary School said that Kid Shape helped him a lot.
9.      Pinnacle Health programme encourage adults to take responsibility for their health.
10.  The vice president of Pinnacle Health said that physical activity and good nutrition improves heart health and serves to prevent chronic illnesses in the future.
11.  The first good results have been seen in September.
12.  87 percent of children participating lost between one and five pounds.


II.Writing
Choose the best variant
  1. See you … the morning.
a) at       b) in      c) on       d) out
2. John is as … as you are.
a) taller      b) tallest       c) tall       d) the tallest
3. I used to play … piano in my school orchestra.
a) a       b) the        c) an          d) –
4. She doesn’t like …. Football.
a) play        b) played         c) to play       d) be playing
5. Put the … on the ….
a) boxes, shelves       b) boxes, shelfs         c) boxes, shelvies        d) boxies,     shelves
6. I …. Coffee with my friends now,
a) is having       b) has        c) have         d) am having
7. Michael … there for 5 years already.
a) has lived       b) had lived       c) is living       d) lives
8. They won’t be having English at 2 p.m, … they?
a) won’t        b) shan’t        c) will       d) shall
9. The book … by him now.
a) is reading          b) are reading         c) is being reading        d) is being read
10. Parents will be back … Monday.
a) on         b) in        c) at         d) to
11. … I borrow your pen?
a) must      b) may      c) need      d) should
12. She … her granny next week.
a) visiting        b) shall visit      c) visit       d) will visit



III.               Write about the use of computers in the future. Include this information:
·          What the people are using the Internet for;
·          What you think about the role of the Internet in the modern world

Examination card № 4
III.           Reading
Read an article and do the tasks.
Bruce Willis
Born on March 19th, 1995, on a military base in Germany, Bruce Willis has always had a strong personality and a gift for acting.
He was a very energetic teenager and became active in various drama clubs, his first leading role was  in the very successful TV series Moonlighting and his first great film success was blind Date. Die Hard, Hudson Hawk, Armageddon and a number of other unforgettable Hollywood hits followed.
Bruce Willis is of medium height and well-built. What makes him so attractive is his smile and his laughing eyes, he looks great in expensive suits, but he prefers casual clothes.
Of course, he is not only well-known for being good-looking, but also as a talented actor with a complicated personality. He’s very sociable and outgoing person. His life and career have shown that with determination and a strong will, you can succeed in whatever you choose to do.
Bruce Willis was married to film star Demi Moore, with whom he has three beautiful daughters. Unfortunately, his married life was not as successful as career. That’s why he got divorced. Of course, he loves his children and tries to spend as much time as possible with them, although he sometimes feels he doesn’t see them enough.
Bruce Willis is indeed a unique personality, whose character has many sides. One thing is for sure: his talent and fame will continue to shine for many years to come.

Choose the best answer
1.      In his teens, Bruce Willis ______
a)      wasn’t very active
b)      decided to join drama clubs
c)      watched a lot of TV series
2.      People find Bruce Willis attractive because _____
a)      he is well-built
b)      he is famous and talented
c)      of his facial features
3.      Bruce Willis is famous for _____
a)      his talent and personality
b)      his beautiful wife
c)      his attractive appearance.
4.      The article tells us that Bruce Willis has a complicated personality because _____
a)      he is very talented, strong-willed and successful
b)      he is rich and famous
c)      he loves going to the parties with his friends
5.      In his everyday life, Bruce ______
a)      has a perfect family life
b)      doesn’t want to see his children
c)      is unable to see his children very often
6.      The article tells us that Bruce Willis _____
a)      is a very interesting and talented actor
b)      is only interested in money and fame
c)      doesn’t have a very successful career

Decide if the statements are true or false
1.      He was born on the eighteenth of March,
2.      Bruce Willis became active in various drama clubs.
3.      He is talented, good-looking, sociable and outgoing person.
4.      Demi Moore was his wife and they have four daughters.
5.      He loves his children and spend much time as possible as can with them.
6.      Bruce Willis prefers casual clothes.
 
II.Writing
Choose the best variant
  1. Is there ____ sugar in the bowl?
a) some        b) any         c) no
2.  she won’t be late for our meeting, _____?
a) won she       b) she will        c) will she
3. Look at the clouds. It ____
a) will rain
b) is raining
c) is going to rain
4. School  ____ at 8:30 every morning
a) will start         b) starts          c) is starting
5. She ____ her shoes to the shop yet.
a) hasn’t taken
b) hasn’t been taking
c) took
6. Sue has visited Belguin  many times but she has never been to ____ Netherlands.
a) -      b) an       c) the
7.  I ____ to the cinema with Terry last week.
a) go       b) went       c) gone
8. I have never_____ a better film than this.
a) see      b) saw       c) seen
9. I ____ in a very multicultural part of England.
a) am living        b) live        c) lives
10. My mum____ dinner now.
a) cooks        b) are cooking       c) is cooking
11. If I ____ you, I would give you some advice.
a)    were      b) was      c) are
12. That’s the house _____ I was born.
a) what       b) where       c) when


III.Write about the kind of music you like. Include this information
  • Your favourite singer/band
  • Where you usually listen to music
  • What kind of music you don’t like

Examination card № 4
I.                  Reading
Read an article and do the tasks.
Hi, Benji!
I just wanted to say a big thank you for the U2 tickets you gave me for my birthday. The concert was on last night and it was the most amazing show I have ever seen. This is the first time I have seen U2 play live and it’s something I won’t easily forget. Let me tell you all about it.
We arrived in plenty of time and got a really good place, right in front of the stage. The atmosphere was electric and by the time the band came on the stage, the crowd was going wild! The group played lots of their old favourites but also some of their new stuff. It was brilliant. There were also some great special effects, like fireworks, and there were two huge screens on either side of the stage so that everyone could see Bono strutting around. He was wearing his trademark glasses – so cool!
It’s a real pity that you couldn’t go to the concert with us. Never mind, we’ll make sure that you can come next time!
That’s about all my news for the moment. Once again, thanks a million for the tickets.
See you,
 Seamus

Decide if the statements are true or false.
  1. Seamus didn’t have to pay Benji for the U2 ticket.
  2. Seamus had never been to a U2 concert.
  3. He was running late and got to the concert in a hurry.
  4. It was very crowed so he was at the back, far away from the stage.
  5. There was a problem with the electricity at the concert.
  6.  Seamus gave  Benji a ticket as a birthday present.
  7. Some of the crowd became angry when the band was late coming on stage.
  8. The group played both old and recent songs.
  9. There were fireworks during the show.
  10. the lead singer, Bono, was not on the stage.
  11. Seamus went to the concert on his own.
  12. That wasn’t the only news for the moment.
 II.Writing
Choose the best variant
  1. There were three … in the car.
a) peoples         b) persons              c) people.
2. We moved to this city three years ….
a)    ago        b) last       c) passed
3. He … just … me.
a) have… phone       b) has …. phoned          c) is … phoned
4. Ann … in a block of flats.
a) living        b) live       c) lives
5. I really enjoy …to the cinema.
a) go       b) going       c) goes
6.  If Paul had driven a car, he …
a) would have been hired      b) would hire        c) would have hired
7. kate likes to … the Net in her free time.
a) surf        b) swim        c) do
8. How long… you … English?
a) do .. learn         b) did …learn       c) have… learnt
9. … you … to the museum last week?
a) have gone       b) do go          c) did go
10. Did you see … moon last night?
a) -       b) the        c) a
11. They … a dictation right now.
a) are writing        b) write         c) is writing
12. Nicole used to … ballet classes.
a) take       b) taking       c) takes



III.Write about the importance of sport. Include this information.
·          Why many people go in for sports
·          How sport influences our body and mood
·          What popular sports and games are
·          What your attitude to sport is
      
Examination card № 6
I.                  Reading
Read an article and do the tasks.                        
A magic job
Ken Flannagan began his career in the magic industry only two years ago, but he has already managed to make a name for himself. When he first started out as a trainee magician at the age of fifteen, his parents weren’t very thrilled about it. They thought that he wouldn’t be able to earn a decent living and they tried to convince him otherwise.
Luckily, Ken’s mentor (the well-known magician Malcom Potts) taught him well. Malcom insister that he practiced day and night. Perfecting his own tricks and inventing new ones was the key to Ken’s success. Soon, he was participating in some of his mentor’s shows and then worked on his own.
He is now a performer at children’s parties and other events throughout the city. Most recently, just last October, he won first prize at the annual Junior Magician’s Convention in Minneapolis. Since then, he has been earning $400 per performance, which you have to admit isn’t too bad for someone who hasn’t even graduated from school yet!
What does this teach us? Sometimes you just have to take a chance! Ken often says, “If you’re determined, you can be successful, so don’t let anyone tell you what you can and can’t do.” We’re not surprised!

Say if the statements are true or false
  1. Ken is not popular at all at the moment.
  2. Ken’s parents expected him to make a lot of money from becoming a magician.
  3. Ken’s parents didn’t agree with his choice of job.
  4. Malcom advised him to practice a lot.
  5. Ken didn’t practice his tricks because he was already very good.
  6. Ken has always walked by himself.
  7. The Junior Magician’s Convention in Minneapolis is organized every years.
  8. Ken is earning a lot of money for somebody of his age
  9. Ken has stopped going to school.
  10. According to Ken, anyone can achieve anything they want in life.
  11. Now Ken is a performer at children’s parties and different events throughout the city.
  12. Last November Ken won the first prize at the annual Junior Magician’s Convention in Minneapolis.


II.Writing
Choose the best variant
1. We’d like to learn …
a) England        b) English       c) The English
2. We usually … Skiing in January.
a) go      b) going        c) goes
3. We met a girl … father was a driver.
a) which      b) that       c) whose
4. My grandparents … the fence now.
a) are painting       b) have painted       c) paint
5. I … never … to London.
a) has.. been        b) have… been         c) have…be
6. Antarctica has … temperature in the world.
a) the lowest       b) low       c) lower
7. My sister … TV the whole evening yesterday.
a) watched      b) was watched       c) was watching
8. The article … by me now.
a) is being translated        b) is translated        c) is translating
9. Sue … Belgium many times.
a) visiting           b) visits         c) has visited.
10. … is bad for your health.
a) smoke      b) to smoke        c) smoking
11. My friend and Mary … when I met them.
a) chat       b) were chatting        c) was chatted
12. Next week we … our relatives in England.
a) will visit       b) visit       c) visited



III. Write about keeping animals in Zoos. Include this information
·          Good points
·          Bad points
·          State your opinion

11 клас
Іноземні мови
         Державна підсумкова атестація з іноземних мов, відповідно до наказу МОН України від 16.09 2015 р. №940 «Про проведення державної підсумкової атестації учнів (вихованців) у системі загальної середньої освіти у 2015/2016 навчальному році» та внесених до нього змін, проводиться 20 травня за єдиними завданнями. Завдання для державної підсумкової атестації з іноземних мов на 2015/2016 навчального року підготовлені експертною групою та міжнародними організаціями з урахуванням особливостей національного навчально-методичного забезпечення та зорієнтовані на рівні Загальноєвропейських рекомендацій з мовної освіти та Державного стандарту базової та повної загальної освіти та   відповідно до чинних навчальних Програм з іноземних мов для загальноосвітніх навчальних закладів (рівень В1) та загальноосвітніх навчальних закладів з поглибленим вивченням іноземних мов (рівень В2). Міністерством підготовлено методичні рекомендації щодо формату, критеріїв оцінювання та зразки тестів Державної підсумкової атестації з іноземних мов, які будуть надіслані безкоштовно  до кожного навчального закладу (1 примірник) та розміщені на спеціально-створеному  сайті  dpa2016.com.ua  Навчальні заклади отримають на кожного учня 11-го класу,  безкоштовно, тестові зошити з бланками відповіді для проведення державної підсумкової атестації з іноземних мов.  Зміст і формат ДПА враховує головну мету навчання іноземної мови у загальноосвітніх навчальних закладах формування в учнів комунікативної компетенції, базою для якої слугують комунікативні вміння, сформовані на основі мовних завдань і навичок. Зміст тестових завдань будується на автентичних зразках мовлення, прийнятих у англомовних країнах та відповідає сферам і тематиці ситуативного спілкування, зазначеним у шкільній навчальній програмі. Обєктами контролю визначаються читання і письмо як види мовленнєвої діяльності, а також лексичний і граматичний аспекти іншомовної комунікації через використання мови.
Розділ І. Читання та використання мови 
Завдання для визначення рівня сформованості іншомовної компетенції в читанні орієнтуються на різні стратегії: з розумінням основної інформації (ознайомлювальне читання), повної інформації ивчальне читання) та пошук окремих фактів ибіркове читання).
Джерелами для добору текстів слугують автентичні інформаційно-довідкові, рекламні та газетно-журнальні матеріали, адаптовані за складністю уривки художніх текстів (тільки рівень В2). Зміст текстів узгоджується з навчальною програмою для загальноосвітніх навчальних закладів (рівень B1)  та для загальноосвітніх навчальних закладів з поглибленим вивченням іноземних мов  (рівень В2).
Деякі тексти містять візуальну інформацію до змісту, що допоможе випускникам визначити мету повідомлення. До більших за обсягом автентичних текстів, які представлені у вигляді фрагментів із брошур, журнальних оголошень або інформації з веб-сторінок, надаються запитання, спрямовані на пошук окремих фактів. Зміст текстів стосується інформації, з якою випускники можуть зустрітись у реальних ситуаціях спілкування. Послідовність сформульованих запитань відповідає логіці представлення цієї інформації в тексті.
Тексти для ознайомлювального читання містять до 5% незнайомих слів, а для вивчального та вибіркового читання до 3%, про значення яких можна здогадатись із контексту, за словотворчими елементами, за співзвучністю з рідною мовою (слова- інтернаціоналізми).
Рівень уміння використовувати мову ексико-граматичний аспект) перевіряється під час читання та письма.
 Загальний обсяг текстів складає до 1500 (рівень B1) та до 2000 слів (рівень  B2).
Детальний опис завдань рівня В1
Розділ І: Завдання множинного вибору з трьома варіантами відповіді до кожного тексту (вибір однієї правильної відповіді з трьох).
Формат завдання: Шість коротких окремих текстів, представлених у формі листівки, оголошення, вивіски, інструкції на товарах широкого вжитку, інформаційних повідомлень (друкованих чи письмових).
Мета завдання: Перевірка умінь виокремлювати загальну та детальну інформацію з текстів, що використовуються в повсякденному спілкуванні.
 Завдання альтернативного вибору (правильно/неправильно).
Формат завдання: Один текст загальним обсягом до 400 слів, що містить фактичну інформацію практичного змісту.
Мета завдання: Перевірка умінь диференціювати основні факти і другорядну інформацію, переглядати текст з метою пошуку необхідної інформації для виконання певного завдання.
 Завдання множинного вибору на заповнення пропусків у тексті.
Формат завдання: Один текст описового або сюжетного змісту з пропущеними словами обсягом до 400 слів.
Мета завдання: Визначити сформованість мовних умінь, навичок та рівень засвоєння лексичного і граматичного матеріалу (використання мови).
Детальний опис завдань рівня В2
Розділ І: Завдання множинного вибору з трьома варіантами відповіді до кожного тексту (вибір однієї правильної відповіді з трьох).
Формат завдання: Шість коротких окремих текстів истівки, оголошення, вивіски, інструкції на товарах широкого вжитку, інформаційні повідомлення руковані чи письмові).
Мета завдання: Перевірка умінь виокремлювати загальну та детальну інформацію із текстів загального спрямування.
Завдання множинного вибору з чотирма варіантами відповіді до одного текстуибір однієї правильної відповіді з чотирьох).
Формат завдання: Один текст загальним обсягом до 650 слів. Типи текстів, представлені у завданні, включають статті із періодичних видань, автентичні тексти різних жанрів і стилів, що відображають реалії повсякденного життя та відповідають віковим особливостям учнів.
Мета завдання: Перевірка умінь знаходити та аналізувати необхідну інформацію, подану у вигляді оціночних суджень, опису, аргументації, робити висновки з прочитаного; виділяти основну думку/ідею, диференціювати основні факти і другорядну інформацію, аналізувати і зіставляти інформацію, розуміти логічні звязки всередині тексту та між його частинами.
 Завдання альтернативного вибору (правильно/неправильно).
Формат завдання: Один текст загальним обсягом до 200 слів, що містить фактичну інформацію практичного змісту.
Мета завдання: Перевірка   умінь   диференціювати   основні   факти   і   другорядну інформацію, переглядати текст з метою пошуку необхідної інформації для виконання певного завдання.
 Завдання множинного вибору на заповнення пропусків у тексті.
 Формат завдання: Один текст описового або сюжетного змісту з пропущеними словами обсягом до 500 слів.
Мета завдання: Визначити сформованість мовних та мовленнєвих умінь і навичок, а також якість засвоєння лексичного і граматичного матеріалу (використання мови).
Розділ ІІ. Писемне мовлення
Метою завдань,  розміщених  у  розділі  “Писемне  мовлення,  є  визначення  рівня сформованості у випускників умінь, необхідних для виконання на письмі комунікативних завдань, які пов’язані із повсякденним життям.
Цей розділ тесту передбачає створення власного письмового висловлювання та зорієнтований на виконання комунікативно-творчих завдань: написання короткого повідомлення у формі листівки, записки або неофіційного електронного листа (для учнів загальноосвітніх навчальних закладів на рівень В1). Учням загальноосвітніх навчальних закладів з поглибленим вивченням іноземних мов на рівень В2 додатково до вищезазначених може бути запропоновано створити розповідь, зробити запис у  блозі, на форумі чи написати офіційний лист. Зміст завдань пов’язаний з інтересами та комунікативними потребами учнів загальноосвітніх шкіл, з якими вони можуть стикатися у реальних ситуаціях спілкування.
Завдання  для  писемного  мовлення  сформульовані  у  вигляді  мовленнєвих  ситуацій, у змісті яких чітко визначені мета і об’єкт спілкування. Вибір комунікативної ситуації передбачає міжкультурне спілкування, а відтак, зміст мовленнєвих ситуацій включає як соціокультурні особливості англомовних країн, так і України.
Випускники повинні вміти писати особисті листи, використовувати формули мовленнєвого етикету, прийняті в англомовних країнах, розповідаючи про окремі факти та події свого життя, висловлюючи власні міркування і почуття, описуючи плани на майбутнє та запитуючи партнера про аналогічну інформацію, а також передавати повідомлення у вигляді записки довільної форми. Учні також повинні вміти розповісти про перебіг подій, описати людину, об’єкт, написати повідомлення відповідно до поставленого завдання, зокрема про побачене, почуте та згідно із запропонованою мовленнєвою ситуацією обґрунтувати власну точку зору.

Обсяг письмового повідомлення складає 50-80 слів (для учнів загальноосвітніх навчальних закладів на рівень В1) та 80-100 слів (для учнів загальноосвітніх навчальних закладів з поглибленим вивченням іноземних мов на рівень В2). Завдання містить вказівки, адресата та мету написання повідомлення і включає три змістові умови, що повинні бути розкриті у письмовому висловлюванні.






































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